Why did God do Satan’s bidding?

[Angrboda]

As I lay slumbering, it occurred to me that perhaps John's views rest upon a misapplication of the law of the excluded middle, the belief that the refutation of Rhythm's views validates his own. It is in this context that such an appeal to hypocrisy would at least be plausible. It ignores the possibility that neither John nor Rhythm have the right of it, and that there may be another view which is correct. I agree that John's appeal to hypocrisy is fallacious, but perhaps it's fallacious on other grounds than simply misunderstanding the fallacy, or not grasping that the absence of a positive account of God's rights is not ameliorated by anything other than a successful positive account of those rights.