Why did God do Satan’s bidding?

[John V]

As I lay slumbering, it occurred to me that perhaps John's views rest upon a misapplication of the law of the excluded middle, the belief that the refutation of Rhythm's views validates his own.

Nope.

It is in this context that such an appeal to hypocrisy would at least be plausible. It ignores the possibility that neither John nor Rhythm have the right of it, and that there may be another view which is correct.

I've previously noted that views on rights boil down to opinion. There is no "correct" view.

I agree that John's appeal to hypocrisy is fallacious,

Er, when a person makes a claim that they apply a principle consistently, how would you go about refuting it? Isn't pointing out inconsistency the most logical approach?

but perhaps it's fallacious on other grounds than simply misunderstanding the fallacy, or not grasping that the absence of a positive account of God's rights is not ameliorated by anything other than a successful positive account of those rights.

Who determines whether the positive account is successful, and on what basis must the judge? Again, this is opinion, and none of us can prove our case. Rhythm agreed that it's opinion, and claimed that he applies his opinions on rights consistently.