So Jesus correcting the interpretation of the laws of Moses is Jesus calling Moses a liar?
If the words of Moses were accurately related, and we know the kjv fails on this in places, why can't his words be what God chose to reveal At the time?
Jewish scholarly opinion is that Jesus changed nothing of mosaic law.
If the words of Moses were accurately related, and we know the kjv fails on this in places, why can't his words be what God chose to reveal At the time?
Jewish scholarly opinion is that Jesus changed nothing of mosaic law.