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"God has morally sufficient reasons for permitting evil"
#37
RE: "God has morally sufficient reasons for permitting evil"
The problem here is that the definitions of "evil" implied here beg the question. It is assumed that all man's sufferings are intrinsically evil simply because they are unpleasant, and that a good God could not allow them. This viewpoint only make sense from the perspective that there is no God, and that we're talking only about human ideas which do/don't make sense to humans.

Let's look at parenthood. I sometimes inflict suffering on my children. I some times give them free reign to make mistakes, or force them to follow my will. It is in my nature both to have them follow me to some degree, and for them to blossom and discover their own natures to some degree. I COULD mold my children almost completely-- brain washing, draconic punishments, a program of LSD to reform their little brains.

But I don't do that. Letting them experience some suffering is necessary for them to develop in the manner in which I want them to-- as individual entities separate from my own whims. If they ignore my advice, or take a wrong turn, things could turn out very badly for them. But it's hard to argue that even mortal risk on their parts makes the liberty I give them evil rather than good.
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RE: "God has morally sufficient reasons for permitting evil" - by bennyboy - December 17, 2013 at 4:25 am

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