(September 4, 2014 at 4:27 pm)Esquilax Wrote:I see you Euthyphro~(September 4, 2014 at 12:15 pm)Michael Wrote: I see no reason why stable morality can't be the product of a law giver. Indeed I would expect a stable law giver to give a stable law; that makes more sense to me than capriciousness.
If the law is stable and the law giver can't change it, then the law is true independent of the law giver's proclamation on it: it isn't true because the law giver specifically selected it (if this was the case then the law is mutable depending on what the giver selects) but is true and then the law giver tells us this.
Stop examining the law giver and start examining the process by which it assembled the moral laws: if they are simply whatever it selects, then even if they never change, they are merely the opinions of the law giver and moral actions can become immoral actions just as easily as they first became moral ones. If the law giver knew what was moral out of a set of pre-existing moral laws and then handed them down, then it is irrelevant to the process of morality. There is not a third option.
XK9, I'll get back to you later, it's just four in the morning now.
In every country and every age, the priest had been hostile to Liberty.
- Thomas Jefferson
- Thomas Jefferson