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What could a omnipotent God want with the worship of humans?
#36
RE: What could a omnipotent God want with the worship of humans?
(November 21, 2014 at 12:13 pm)ChadWooters Wrote:
(November 21, 2014 at 10:30 am)dyresand Wrote: you have to prove we have souls first before you say we have one.
Aristotle already did that for us and Aquinas made it conclusive, so there is no need to revisit the issue.

Also from Aristotle:
1. Slavery was okay
2. Women have a different number of teeth than men
3. Geocentrism
4. Eels don't reproduce

If you're going to invoke an authority, you might be careful to address his obvious fallibility. Understanding this doesn't necessarily mean he was wrong about souls, let me dismantle this part of your claim a bit.

Aristotle's idea of the soul extended directly from his adherence to the idea of forms in his metaphysics, and in no way approached the Platonic idea of the necessity of souls for the sake of eternal consequences. Without going into a lot of detail, Aristotle had a nested hierarchy of soul. He was also specific that the soul was not separable from the body. His idea of the immortal intellect was an invocation to employ the intellect as tapping into an immortal 'thinking ability' and is not nearly the same as stating there exists a disembodied soul.
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RE: What could a omnipotent God want with the worship of humans? - by Cato - November 21, 2014 at 1:48 pm

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