(February 21, 2015 at 7:11 pm)Surgenator Wrote: Wait, an objective law has to be universal, independent of time or place. If we only have part of it here, then the moral law is not universal and not objective.
An objective law can't be subjective. A universal law has to be independent of time and place. But there's no reason that an objective law has to be independent of time and place.
Do you know of a reason?