Why Didn't Jesus Write?

[Minimalist]

That particular passage in "john" is in the pericope adulterae.  It is a much later forgery which does not appear in the earliest copies of the so-called gospel.

That doesn't make it any less legit than the rest of the Gospel!

Actually, it does.  The fact that the passage in question does not appear in either the Codex Vaticanus or the Codex Sinaiticus is definitive evidence that "john" was amended to include that particular bullshit story sometime after 350.  We do not usually get such precise dating for bible bullshit stories which makes the Pericope Adulterae Exhibit "A" for later xtian tampering with their so-called holy horseshit.

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What scholars point out and which jesus freaks ignore freely is that the various gospel scribblings were written in Greek by well-educated and highly sophisticated Greek speakers living in different places and different times.  The notion that this was some sort of "peasant movement" is preposterous on its face.  Ignorant peasants ekeing out a subsistence living would have had no time for jesus' bullshit.  They'd have been too busy trying not to starve.

To be honest, a group of poor, miserable peasants sounds like the group that a messiah figure would appeal to.

Does it?  Remember what the "jewish" messiah was supposed to do:

The mashiach will bring about the political and spiritual redemption of the Jewish people by bringing us back to Israel and restoring Jerusalem (Isaiah 11:11-12; Jeremiah 23:8; 30:3; Hosea 3:4-5).
He will establish a government in Israel that will be the center of all world government, both for Jews and gentiles (Isaiah 2:2-4; 11:10; 42:1).
He will rebuild the Temple and re-establish its worship (Jeremiah 33:18).
He will restore the religious court system of Israel and establish Jewish law as the law of the land (Jeremiah 33:15).

"Jesus" like a piss-poor batter went 0 for 4 on those.  But ask yourself the question "cui bono?"  Who benefits?  Certainly not the peasants whose lives would be miserable no matter who was running the show.  No, those "prophesies" benefit the ruling classes and they were the ones with the delusions of glory not the poor bastards with sheep shit between their toes.

One last point, take a look at those conditions above.  At the time that later xtians chose to set their godboy in history ( c 6-36 AD) the Temple was rebuilt and the animal sacrificial system of worship was in full swing. ( #3 )  The gospel accounts insist that the religious court system had been re-established and was operating because the godboy was allegedly tried in front of them.  (#4)

Taken together #'s 1, 3 and 4 suggest they were written during the so-called exile period which in itself is probably just folklore concocted during the Persian period.

So, no.  Jesus was a savior cult god just like all the other savior cult gods being worshiped around the Roman Empire in the first century AD.  He was nothing special and he was no more real than any of the rest of them.