RE: Would Jesus promote punishing the innocent instead of the guilty?
August 3, 2020 at 12:46 am
(August 2, 2020 at 3:59 pm)Greatest I am Wrote:(August 2, 2020 at 2:10 am)Fake Messiah Wrote: But can you say that for sure? Why couldn't we presume that early Jesus had nothing to do with Judaism, considering that he fails miserably on the Jewish Messiah test, and only later on became Christ?
So maybe he was some different (gnostic) entity-God who was then tied to Jewish mythology.
For instance, there was some early Christian teacher called Marcion who claimed that Jesus had nothing to do with Judaism. He even had his gospel which was Gnostic, non-historical, and did not make Jesus a Jewish man but a new fresh God who "came down at Capernaum."
Now, many scholars claim that Marcion's gospel is rewritten Luke, but some claim it could be older than other Gospels.
I like your knowledge base.
If I might butt in.
We know it is a Jewish messianic myth with certainty is that the literature has the Jews taking the death of Jesus on their heda.
Jesus was their attempt to profit, pardon the pun, from their religious prophetic myths.
The Romans had already washed theitr hands of the whole mess.
The Jews would have no one usurp their sacrifice.
Jesus would have it no other way.
Some say he died for all but hell belies that.
The literature says absolutely nothing about the life and death of Jesus. There is not a single contemporary account. This silence alone tells you a lot about the true unimportance of Jesus.
The Biblical account is hearsay at best, author unknown. The tale of Pilate washing his hands of the affair varies depending on the account and is a pitiful attempt to shift the blame for what was clearly a Roman execution conducted by Roman soldiers and Roman authorities. The tale of the trial at the Sanhedrin is utter fiction comparable to bringing Congress into session over the Christmas holidays to try a horse thief.