WHY WOULD PAUL CHANGE SCRIPTURE?

[Minimalist]

You know my grandpa had that problem too.

He believed everything he was told? You're a regular chip off the block, eh?

[truthBtold]

Ok then let's start with a question. What makes you think Paul is quoting this psalm of David? Next question, do you know the difference between a psalm and scripture?

If not paul, who?
Psalm= poetry. .. scripture=nonsense

[Crossless2.0]

Ok then let's start with a question. What makes you think Paul is quoting this psalm of David? Next question, do you know the difference between a psalm and scripture?

If not paul, who?
Psalm= poetry. .. scripture=nonsense

I don't know. That's the point. Anonymous authors attributing their work to some authoritative source (Paul, Moses, etc.) isn't unusual with books in the Bible.

[Drich]

Ok then let's start with a question. What makes you think Paul is quoting this psalm of David? Next question, do you know the difference between a psalm and scripture?

If not paul, who?
Psalm= poetry. .. scripture=nonsense

Psalm= personal form of poetry/song of praise... So if Paul changed a line in a poem or a song of praise did he change scripture? Scripture being 'a Devine edict of holy orgins.'

[truthBtold]

If not paul, who?
Psalm= poetry. .. scripture=nonsense

Psalm= personal form of poetry/song of praise... So if Paul changed a line in a poem or a song of praise did he change scripture? Scripture being 'a Devine edict of holy orgins.'

Stop the presses!!!.. if paul changed a line, or 2 or 70... in poetry.. what makes u think that he didnt change scripture? R u serious?

[Drich]

Psalm= personal form of poetry/song of praise... So if Paul changed a line in a poem or a song of praise did he change scripture? Scripture being 'a Devine edict of holy orgins.'

Stop the presses!!!.. if paul changed a line, or 2 or 70... in poetry.. what makes u think that he didnt change scripture? R u serious?

proof. or rather your lack of it. Everything Paul wrote down and is apart of the bible we can go back and verify.

You asked the question Why did He change scripture he didn't. A Change in a Holy Edict would denote a change in the orginal texts across the board. Paul was not in a position to change Judaism across the board. His influence stopped with Christianity.

So the question remains why would Paul change a psalm or song of praise? for the same reason we do it. To make it our/his own. To have a song apply directly to our life. With Davids psalm, for Him God only told him of what was to come so David references his ears. Paul experienced this change, and it effected his whole person, so he references the physical changes he experienced and the ones he expected to come.

[Lemonvariable72]

Psalm= personal form of poetry/song of praise... So if Paul changed a line in a poem or a song of praise did he change scripture? Scripture being 'a Devine edict of holy orgins.'

Stop the presses!!!.. if paul changed a line, or 2 or 70... in poetry.. what makes u think that he didnt change scripture? R u serious?

He may have been translating from biblical Hebrew to koine Greek. If the author was then it was likely a thought translation that could contain difference's. Or it could been plain old sloppy.

[truthBtold]

Stop the presses!!!.. if paul changed a line, or 2 or 70... in poetry.. what makes u think that he didnt change scripture? R u serious?

proof. or rather your lack of it. Everything Paul wrote down and is apart of the bible we can go back and verify.

You asked the question Why did He change scripture he didn't. A Change in a Holy Edict would denote a change in the orginal texts across the board. Paul was not in a position to change Judaism across the board. His influence stopped with Christianity.

So the question remains why would Paul change a psalm or song of praise? for the same reason we do it. To make it our/his own. To have a song apply directly to our life. With Davids psalm, for Him God only told him of what was to come so David references his ears. Paul experienced this change, and it effected his whole person, so he references the physical changes he experienced and the ones he expected to come.

Here is isaiah 28:16 (Hebrew bible)
Assuredly,
Thus said the Lord GOD:
"Behold, I will found in Zion,
Stone by stone,
A tower of precious cornerstones,
Exceedingly firm;
He who trusts need not fear.
------------------------------------
Here is Romans 9:30-33 (KJV)
But Israel, which followed after the law of righteousness, hath not attained to the law of righteousness. 32 Wherefore? Because they sought it not by faith, but as it were by the works of the law. For they stumbled at that stumblingstone; 33 As it is written, Behold, I lay in Sion a stumblingstone and rock of offence:and whosoever believeth on him shall not be ashamed. (KJV)

Did he not change the words?

---

Here is isaiah 28:16 (Hebrew bible)
Assuredly,
Thus said the Lord GOD:
"Behold, I will found in Zion,
Stone by stone,
A tower of precious cornerstones,
Exceedingly firm;
He who trusts need not fear.
------------------------------------
Here is Romans 9:30-33 (KJV)
But Israel, which followed after the law of righteousness, hath not attained to the law of righteousness. 32 Wherefore? Because they sought it not by faith, but as it were by the works of the law. For they stumbled at that stumblingstone; 33 As it is written, Behold, I lay in Sion a stumblingstone and rock of offence:and whosoever believeth on him shall not be ashamed. (KJV)

Did he not change the words?

[Drich]

proof. or rather your lack of it. Everything Paul wrote down and is apart of the bible we can go back and verify.

You asked the question Why did He change scripture he didn't. A Change in a Holy Edict would denote a change in the orginal texts across the board. Paul was not in a position to change Judaism across the board. His influence stopped with Christianity.

So the question remains why would Paul change a psalm or song of praise? for the same reason we do it. To make it our/his own. To have a song apply directly to our life. With Davids psalm, for Him God only told him of what was to come so David references his ears. Paul experienced this change, and it effected his whole person, so he references the physical changes he experienced and the ones he expected to come.

Here is isaiah 28:16 (Hebrew bible)
Assuredly,
Thus said the Lord GOD:
"Behold, I will found in Zion,
Stone by stone,
A tower of precious cornerstones,
Exceedingly firm;
He who trusts need not fear.
------------------------------------
Here is Romans 9:30-33 (KJV)
But Israel, which followed after the law of righteousness, hath not attained to the law of righteousness. 32 Wherefore? Because they sought it not by faith, but as it were by the works of the law. For they stumbled at that stumblingstone; 33 As it is written, Behold, I lay in Sion a stumblingstone and rock of offence:and whosoever believeth on him shall not be ashamed. (KJV)

Did he not change the words?

---

Here is isaiah 28:16 (Hebrew bible)
Assuredly,
Thus said the Lord GOD:
"Behold, I will found in Zion,
Stone by stone,
A tower of precious cornerstones,
Exceedingly firm;
He who trusts need not fear.
------------------------------------
Here is Romans 9:30-33 (KJV)
But Israel, which followed after the law of righteousness, hath not attained to the law of righteousness. 32 Wherefore? Because they sought it not by faith, but as it were by the works of the law. For they stumbled at that stumblingstone; 33 As it is written, Behold, I lay in Sion a stumblingstone and rock of offence:and whosoever believeth on him shall not be ashamed. (KJV)

Did he not change the words?

No. He did not change anything. Isaiah is a book of prophesy. Paul was illustrating or applying these prophesies to the events that point to their full fillment.

In Paul's quoting of these passages he was most likely quoting from memory because I a given region there may have only been one or two copies of that book and the Jews would not have granted access to it especially if Paul was using it to legitimize Christ.

[truthBtold]

Here is isaiah 28:16 (Hebrew bible)
Assuredly,
Thus said the Lord GOD:
"Behold, I will found in Zion,
Stone by stone,
A tower of precious cornerstones,
Exceedingly firm;
He who trusts need not fear.
------------------------------------
Here is Romans 9:30-33 (KJV)
But Israel, which followed after the law of righteousness, hath not attained to the law of righteousness. 32 Wherefore? Because they sought it not by faith, but as it were by the works of the law. For they stumbled at that stumblingstone; 33 As it is written, Behold, I lay in Sion a stumblingstone and rock of offence:and whosoever believeth on him shall not be ashamed. (KJV)

Did he not change the words?

---

Here is isaiah 28:16 (Hebrew bible)
Assuredly,
Thus said the Lord GOD:
"Behold, I will found in Zion,
Stone by stone,
A tower of precious cornerstones,
Exceedingly firm;
He who trusts need not fear.
------------------------------------
Here is Romans 9:30-33 (KJV)
But Israel, which followed after the law of righteousness, hath not attained to the law of righteousness. 32 Wherefore? Because they sought it not by faith, but as it were by the works of the law. For they stumbled at that stumblingstone; 33 As it is written, Behold, I lay in Sion a stumblingstone and rock of offence:and whosoever believeth on him shall not be ashamed. (KJV)

Did he not change the words?

No. He did not change anything. Isaiah is a book of prophesy. Paul was illustrating or applying these prophesies to the events that point to their full fillment.

In Paul's quoting of these passages he was most likely quoting from memory because I a given region there may have only been one or two copies of that book and the Jews would not have granted access to it especially if Paul was using it to legitimize Christ.

Drich, I gotta say ur one of the few that actually answer my posts and not bother with the way I type my threads.. thank u..