Leviticus only applies to the Levites

[Fidel_Castronaut]

But gays, huggy. TEH GAYZ!

[RobbyPants]

And how about an accolade for RobbyPants for at least trying, if not succeeding, in getting a Christian to explain cafeteria-ism !!!!

Yeah, I was mostly reading and barely posting in a discussion, then he just sort of threw it out there. I thought "No way! I've never seen this before. I have to see how far he runs with it."

What gets me is, there's so many other commonly accepted (among believers) excuses out there, so why go this route?

I have really wondered (and tried myself) to get somebody in the Christian orbit to explain the criteria used in picking and choosing what scriptures they will submit to and what scriptures they won't. Nobody wants to go on record for that one.

Oh, God. That's not a fun read. They'll make some extremely lengthy posts and bust out a bunch of theological terms for why verse A justifies verse B, and why together, you have to take verse C in a certain way, and anything else is heresy.

I'm kind of saddened when I see how much effort they put into this, and at the end of the day, they say it's super important to deny groups of people equal treatment.

To put it simply.
The book of Leviticus explains to the priesthood (Levites) how they were to preform their duties.

And 1st and 2nd Corinthians was addressed to a specific church in Corinth. It wasn't addressed to "all Christians now and in the future".

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Nitpick: in the OP, that should be "Galatia", not "Galilee".

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So, the guy apparently dropped the subject. His answer was to tell me to "ask God", then throw another non-answer out there about Leviticus applying to the priests of Levi (despite the fact that the epistles are each addressed to a different group, specifically). I told him I was asking him since he was the one making the claim, and he hasn't bitten.

So, there we have it, from the horse's mouth: the official answer to why Leviticus only applies to the Levites, but 1st and 2nd Corinthians applies to all Christians present and future is "ask God".

[Huggy Bear]

To put it simply.
The book of Leviticus explains to the priesthood (Levites) how they were to preform their duties.

And 1st and 2nd Corinthians was addressed to a specific church in Corinth. It wasn't addressed to "all Christians now and in the future".

---

Nitpick: in the OP, that should be "Galatia", not "Galilee".

As I stated earlier "The book of Leviticus explains to the priesthood (Levites) how they were to preform their duties."

The old priesthood has been abolished and instead God chose to place his spirit in everyone.

Acts 2:17
And it shall come to pass in the last days, saith God, I will pour out of my Spirit upon all flesh: and your sons and your daughters shall prophesy, and your young men shall see visions, and your old men shall dream dreams:

As a result all that have received the spirit are now considered "High priests"

1 Peter 2:5
you also, like living stones, are being built into a spiritual house to be a holy priesthood, offering spiritual sacrifices acceptable to God through Jesus Christ.

So whereas the ancient priesthood (Levites) were responsible for the spiritual well being of the nation of Israel, now each individual is responsible for their own spiritual well being.

Philippians 2
12 Wherefore, my beloved, as ye have always obeyed, not as in my presence only, but now much more in my absence, work out your own salvation with fear and trembling.

So to answer your question while Paul's letter to the Corinthians deals with issues the Corinthians were having at the time, it still sets a precedent for all Christians.

[Minimalist]

Leviticus only applies to the Levites.

To put it simply.
The book of Leviticus explains to the priesthood (Levites) how they were to preform their duties.

In part....it also tells the commoners what their roles are.

[Thumpalumpacus]

So to answer your question while Paul's letter to the Corinthians deals with issues the Corinthians were having at the time, it still sets a precedent for all Christians.

Where in your book does it say that the same principle does not apply to other books like Leviticus?

This really is not an answer; you're just saying, "Because."

[Cyberman]

Hey if all scripture is "gawd breathed"

He has some nasty breath.

Nobody said it had to come out of “his“ mouth. Thick lips, bad breath sort of thing.

[Anomalocaris]

The bible only applies to the bibites.

[Crossless2.0]

Hey if all scripture is "gawd breathed"

He has some nasty breath.

Nobody said it had to come out of “his“ mouth. Thick lips, bad breath sort of thing.

Yes, the Divine Quiff Theory of Biblical Inspiration. I read about that in college.

[MindForgedManacle]

To put it simply.
The book of Leviticus explains to the priesthood (Levites) how they were to preform their duties.

Funny. If that were the case, why would Jesus have had to tell the crowd NOT to stone the woman to death, as per Leviticus instruction? And Jesus didn't say the law was inapplicable to her, but that only "he who was without sin" could rightfully do so. Of course, that would make one wonder why Jesus didn't stone her to do, supposedly having been sinless himself.

[Rampant.A.I.]

So to answer your question while Paul's letter to the Corinthians deals with issues the Corinthians were having at the time, it still sets a precedent for all Christians.

Where in your book does it say that the same principle does not apply to other books like Leviticus?

This really is not an answer; you're just saying, "Because."

Moreover, why is the "homosexuality is a sin" portion of Leviticus the only thing in Leviticus modern Christians actually follow?