Crazy shit from ezekiel.

[Jenny A]

You may have read "mistranslated," but I meant what I said, "reinterpreted" though occasionally as in the example of translating the word young woman as virgin, mistranslated in the process.

That is not mistranslated.
the actual Hebrew text.
http://biblehub.com/interlinear/study/isaiah/7.htm

if you mouse-over the word you will see that the Hebrew word for "young woman" is "Almah".

almah: a young woman, a virgin
Original Word: עַלְמָה
Part of Speech: Noun Feminine
Transliteration: almah
Phonetic Spelling: (al-maw')
Short Definition: maidens

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Almah

Almah (עלמה, plural: alamot עלמות) is a Hebrew word meaning a young woman of childbearing age who has not yet had a child, and who may be an unmarried virgin or a married young woman.[1] The term occurs nine times in the Hebrew Bible – see usage below.

I suppose I don't have to tell you that it was against Hebrew law for an unmarried young woman to conceive a child sexually. So if your position is that God's sign was actually having a married woman conceive... what kind of sense does that make? married women conceive all the time.

I am assuming you mean this:

 Therefore the Lord himself will give you a sign. Look, the young woman is with child and shall bear a son, and shall name him Immanuel. 15 He shall eat curds and honey by the time he knows how to refuse the evil and choose the good. 16 For before the child knows how to refuse the evil and choose the good, the land before whose two kings you are in dread will be deserted. 17 The Lord will bring on you and on your people and on your ancestral house such days as have not come since the day that Ephraim departed from Judah—the king of Assyria.”

Isaiah 7:14-17 NRSV

Even if you translate "young woman" as virgin, it's not a prediction of Jesus.  Look at the tense.  The young woman "is" with child.  And the sign is not that she will give birth, but what will happen before her son is of age.  It is a prophecy that was (according to the OT) already fulfilled before Jesus was ever born.  And it was given to a Ahaz:

Again the Lord spoke to Ahaz, saying, 11 Ask a sign of the Lord your God; let it be deep as Sheol or high as heaven. 12 But Ahaz said, I will not ask, and I will not put the Lord to the test. 13 Then Isaiah said: “Hear then, O house of David! Is it too little for you to weary mortals, that you weary my God also? 14 Therefore the Lord himself will give you a sign.

Isaiah 7:10-13 NRSV

And it is about Ahaz's then current conflict with the Kings of Aram and Israel.

In the days of Ahaz son of Jotham son of Uzziah, king of Judah, King Rezin of Aram and King Pekah son of Remaliah of Israel went up to attack Jerusalem, but could not mount an attack against it. 2 When the house of David heard that Aram had allied itself with Ephraim, the heart of Ahaz and the heart of his people shook as the trees of the forest shake before the wind.

 Isaiah 7:1-4.  NRSV

Where any future virgin comes in is beyond me.   But Christians claim all sorts of things about it including that it's "double" prophecy meant to be fulfilled twice.  If that isn't a reinterpretation of what is plainly meant in the OT, I don't know what is.

Do you want to talk about Jacob and Jesus, or is that not your particular reinterpretation?