In practice, there is often disagreement about what is abuse of an idea and even what the idea is. This is particularly true in cases where the writer is not clear. But even with good writers, there are often disagreements about interpretations.
Also, is what is logically entailed by a philosophy considered to be included in it? Or is inferring such things an "abuse" of the philosophy if the philosopher never made the inference?
Also, is what is logically entailed by a philosophy considered to be included in it? Or is inferring such things an "abuse" of the philosophy if the philosopher never made the inference?
"A wise man ... proportions his belief to the evidence."
— David Hume, An Enquiry Concerning Human Understanding, Section X, Part I.
