Two possibilities...

[Drich]

Define 'No true Scotsman.'

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/No_true_Scotsman

http://rationalwiki.org/wiki/No_True_Scotsman

did you read those definations?

Because the 'No true scots' fallacy center around not being able to disqualify a person from being apart of a social grouping when their are no rules governing that particular objection/attempted disqualification.

The example being 'no true Scotsman' would put sugar in his porage... well their aren't any rules concerning being a Scotsman and sugar in porage. however one could indeed say no scot could be born in Germany from a strictly German decent. why? Because a Scotsman in this case would be referring to one's country of origin, and as such where and to whom one is born defines one's country of orgin.

Like wise Their are terms and conditions that make one Christian. If one charges that another can not be a Christian, and conduct something like the Spanish Inquision then yes we can look at those acts and see where they were in direct violation of the laws governing Christianity.

Now I will concede their are times when people say a true Christian won't XYZ and XYZ is not in the bible. Yes that would be an example of a no true scots fallacy applied to Christianity. However the No true Scots fallacy does not refer to the term 'No true christian' never being used. Because clearly their are times when behavior exceeds the boundries of a given social group that would disqualify a given person or who group of people from said group because their actions clearly breaks the rules of said group.