....
Before I spend another minute chasing you down this rabbit hole, you do know that for a Christian The precepts found in the NT are the law explained through the lens of atonement right? and that unless one is an OT Jew trying to follow the OT law to it's letter (including being born a OT Jew) that the rules do not apply under the Covenant of atonement?
I have no problem showing book chapter and verse, breaking the passage down into the hebrew and helping understand the syntax and composition of it all... that said unless you are a OT jew tring to live under that law, then know one can only be condemned by that standard. Why? Because the Law's only purpose is to show sin. It is not a standard to try and live by (morality.)
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Surely the two things are so intermingled as to be not worth mentioning any difference, (in the OT/NT) can something be a sin but still moral? I think not, this would mean that distictions are irrelevant.
Before I spend another minute chasing you down this rabbit hole, you do know that for a Christian The precepts found in the NT are the law explained through the lens of atonement right? and that unless one is an OT Jew trying to follow the OT law to it's letter (including being born a OT Jew) that the rules do not apply under the Covenant of atonement?
I have no problem showing book chapter and verse, breaking the passage down into the hebrew and helping understand the syntax and composition of it all... that said unless you are a OT jew tring to live under that law, then know one can only be condemned by that standard. Why? Because the Law's only purpose is to show sin. It is not a standard to try and live by (morality.)
[/quote]
Surely the two things are so intermingled as to be not worth mentioning any difference, (in the OT/NT) can something be a sin but still moral? I think not, this would mean that distictions are irrelevant.
You can fix ignorance, you can't fix stupid.
Tinkety Tonk and down with the Nazis.