(April 16, 2009 at 3:48 pm)Eilonnwy Wrote: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/No_true_Scotsman
So I'm correct except that the first someone has to redefine what group X is in order to exclude someone else from it? So am I correct in saying that Frodo, in order to exclude the Catholics from being in some way true Christians is using the NTS fallacy?
Kyu
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Where those who are hacked off with the stupidity of irrational belief can vent their feelings!
Come over to the dark side, we have cookies!
Kyuuketsuki, AngryAtheism Owner & Administrator