Why do cardinals get to elect the Pope?

[BrianSoddingBoru4]

Um no, it was more to the point that the Pope was the top dog over the kings. It was not a real separation of Church and state. The kings under the Church always had to be anointed by the Church. It was still a form of theocracy.

You need to read up on this a bit more.

Real secular separation didn't take hold until the age enlightenment. Even after that, even after the founders, there have been constant attempts to interject religion into common law. The Church did not come up with the concept of common law. 

This has nothing to do with the topic.

"Secular" to the theist back then meant, merely means anyone who does not ascribe to their specific sect. "Secular" in the modern world means neutral, neither for or against.

Both of these definitions of secular are wrong.

Even with England, the only reason the Queen cant become a dictator is because long ago the parliament beheaded a king.

This has nothing to do with the topic.

But it still remains in antiquity the real power was religion. Royalty back then, saw itself as under the favor of divine power.

But we aren't talking about antiquity.  What is wrong with you?

The queen today has to ask permission to enter one of the chambers. I forgot which one. 

Commons.  But that has nothing to do with the topic.

Certainly you can find individual rulers whom persecuted religious dissent, but ultimately long term, royal families in antiquity saw their powers as being divinely anointed.

Why antiquity again?

It still has no reflection on modern western pluralism.

What does this have to do with the election of Popes?

Boru