RE: Why did the Jews lie about Jesus?
March 27, 2019 at 9:05 pm
(This post was last modified: March 27, 2019 at 9:06 pm by fredd bear.)
It was Pope John Paul 2 who so graciously absolved the Jews (as a people) from the death of Jesus.
This absolution came after the better part of 2000 years of Christian antisemitism, partly caused by the belief and teaching that Jews were 'Christ killers' .I was certainly taught that at the Catholic school I attended. That was over 50 years ago, so I can only remember a bit of it;
Pilate is addressing the mob. The mob call for Barabbas to be released.
Pilate asks what about Jesus---the reply is something like "let his blood be upon our heads and those of our children" I just checked:
"King James Bible
Then answered all the people, and said, His blood be on us, and on our children."
I just remembered an odd snippet. Pilate is aware Jesus is innocent, but says will scourge him and let him go. Context; Pilate is prefect of Judaea. Why on earth is he allowing a mob to dictate to him?
That set Christian thinking for nearly 2 thousand years. In truth I suspect that was a convenient excuse for say massacres of Jews by Crusaders setting out on crusade ( they were murdering their creditors) and for centuries of pogroms in Eastern Europe.
Another recent major change was the final admission that Mary Magdalene was not only not a prostitute, but probably a disciple... the crackpot fringe goes a lot further, claiming Mary and Jesus were married. From what I understand is that an argument can be made from scripture that Jesus and Mary Magdalene were close, but that does not necessarily mean 'lovers'
This absolution came after the better part of 2000 years of Christian antisemitism, partly caused by the belief and teaching that Jews were 'Christ killers' .I was certainly taught that at the Catholic school I attended. That was over 50 years ago, so I can only remember a bit of it;
Pilate is addressing the mob. The mob call for Barabbas to be released.
Pilate asks what about Jesus---the reply is something like "let his blood be upon our heads and those of our children" I just checked:
"King James Bible
Then answered all the people, and said, His blood be on us, and on our children."
I just remembered an odd snippet. Pilate is aware Jesus is innocent, but says will scourge him and let him go. Context; Pilate is prefect of Judaea. Why on earth is he allowing a mob to dictate to him?
That set Christian thinking for nearly 2 thousand years. In truth I suspect that was a convenient excuse for say massacres of Jews by Crusaders setting out on crusade ( they were murdering their creditors) and for centuries of pogroms in Eastern Europe.
Another recent major change was the final admission that Mary Magdalene was not only not a prostitute, but probably a disciple... the crackpot fringe goes a lot further, claiming Mary and Jesus were married. From what I understand is that an argument can be made from scripture that Jesus and Mary Magdalene were close, but that does not necessarily mean 'lovers'
