Did God play peek-a-boo?

[Jehanne]

All translations, with few exceptions, are imperfect.  For instance, the Middle English of Shakespeare's day, is somewhat to mostly intelligible to us, but even in modern English, the meaning and nuances of some Elizabethan expressions is simply lost to time.  Ditto for the original Hebrew, the Greek of Septuagint and the Aramaic of Jesus' day.  Any Old English text (of which there are only a handful of extant manuscripts) would be completely unintelligible to the modern ear.

And, so, with respect to the verses cited by the OP, no one can say for sure what the original authors intended or the subsequent redactions and edits that took place later.  That the Hebrews worshipped multiple gods, at least early on, is certain with Yahweh becoming the dominant and only god that led to the rise of Jewish and Christian theism.  If anything, we should read both the Old & New Testaments as being more suggestive of an author's intent giving greater weight to the historical and cultural context when the text was supposedly written than the literalness of the text.  Ancient authors were simply not that exact in their writings.

Shakespeare didn’t write in Middle English.

Boru

I certainly considered that; Middle English, technically, ended in the year 1500 and Shakespeare would write a century or so later (he died in 1616). Early modern or Elizabethan English would, I concede, have been a more precise term. It's kind of like arguing over when the Middle Ages ended, whether in 1485 with the accession of the Tudors or with Columbus and the Age of Discovery a decade later, or, even later than that, per some scholars. The Great Vowel Shift had begun in the year 1400 only to end several centuries later, putting Shakespeare right in the middle. But, your point is well taken, Early Modern English it is, but, translations of Shakespeare's works into modern English are online. I don't care much for them, but they have helped me with some of the nuances of the Elizabethan age.