(December 30, 2022 at 9:42 pm)Jehanne Wrote: I certainly considered that; Middle English, technically, ended in the year 1500 and Shakespeare would write a century or so later (he died in 1616). Early moden or Elizabethan English would, I concede, have been a more precise term. It's kind of like arguing over when the Middle Ages ended, whether in 1485 with the accession of the Tudors or with Columbus and the Age of Discovery a decade later, or, even later than that, per some scholars. The Great Vowel Shift had begun in the year 1400 only to end several centuries later, putting Shakespeare right in the middle. But, your point is well taken, Early Moden English it is, but, translations of Shakespeare's works into modern English are online. I don't care much for them, but they have helped me with some of the nuances of the Elizabethan age.
I have prepared the text of the KJV here (https://badinage1.files.wordpress.com/2022/12/kjv.txt) with every book, chapter, and verse on each line, in such a way to greatly aid in searches (I use vim). This allows me to present the appearance of an atheist who has the entire Bible committed to a photographic memory. When apologetics hobbyists engage with me on social media they can only take a few minutes of THAT.
