RE: Good reading for Christian Homophobes
May 13, 2012 at 9:12 am
(This post was last modified: May 13, 2012 at 9:21 am by The Grand Nudger.)
Fuck it, I spend so much time spoonfeeding you lot your own beliefs I may as well help you out.
There are compelling reasons to conclude that the authors of scripture looked down upon homosexuality. It is never mentioned or referred to in anything other than a negative light. This makes them a bit of a oddball in ANE cultures (where we don't see the sort of sexual hangups we currently suffer from -and have a tendency to blanket all of humanity for all time with-). Now, as I've mentioned, homosexuality is never directly referred to as a sin, nor is it ever handled directly at all, but it is commonly found in passages that amount to what I like to call "a voyeurs tour of sinfulness". It would seem that the authors felt that homosexuality was either a punishment for or result of sinfulness. Specifically wantoness. The idea that a person who was completely consumed by their sexual desires (which are constantly referred to as sinful regardless of the object of obsession) would somehow def facto turn to blowing their buddy Joe is amusing to me as it has a hell of alot to say about the various authors comfort level in their own heterosexuality. But again, our hangups were not their hangups, so to them, the idea of succumbing to desire leading to bathroom handies and whoring was probably as evident as your defense of the BigotGod. Like I said, many possible reasons, this being only one, and again, none of which having anything to do with a god.
The verse does not need to be translated or changed from that form. It's a cautionary verse "If you stop screwing women you'll end up taking it up the ass". What do you think "working shame" might be? How does one go about working shame? What do you imagine the difference between lewd wantonness and prostitution was to the authors of the text? The meaning need not be changed, just show me where in that verse that homosexuality is coined as a sin? Or are we changing shame to sin, error to sin?
Scripture....is....silent. You are not.
There are compelling reasons to conclude that the authors of scripture looked down upon homosexuality. It is never mentioned or referred to in anything other than a negative light. This makes them a bit of a oddball in ANE cultures (where we don't see the sort of sexual hangups we currently suffer from -and have a tendency to blanket all of humanity for all time with-). Now, as I've mentioned, homosexuality is never directly referred to as a sin, nor is it ever handled directly at all, but it is commonly found in passages that amount to what I like to call "a voyeurs tour of sinfulness". It would seem that the authors felt that homosexuality was either a punishment for or result of sinfulness. Specifically wantoness. The idea that a person who was completely consumed by their sexual desires (which are constantly referred to as sinful regardless of the object of obsession) would somehow def facto turn to blowing their buddy Joe is amusing to me as it has a hell of alot to say about the various authors comfort level in their own heterosexuality. But again, our hangups were not their hangups, so to them, the idea of succumbing to desire leading to bathroom handies and whoring was probably as evident as your defense of the BigotGod. Like I said, many possible reasons, this being only one, and again, none of which having anything to do with a god.
The verse does not need to be translated or changed from that form. It's a cautionary verse "If you stop screwing women you'll end up taking it up the ass". What do you think "working shame" might be? How does one go about working shame? What do you imagine the difference between lewd wantonness and prostitution was to the authors of the text? The meaning need not be changed, just show me where in that verse that homosexuality is coined as a sin? Or are we changing shame to sin, error to sin?
Scripture....is....silent. You are not.
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