The Most Explicit Verses on the Godship of Jesus

[Rayaan]

Still haven't had a chance to watch the video, but I think Romans 9:5 states the divinity of Christ pretty clearly "To them belong the patriarchs, and from their race, according to the flesh, is the Christ who is God over all, blessed forever. Amen." (ESV)

Jesus was "God over all" most possibly means that he was a "God" in the sense of being a "judge over all (people)." Romans 9:5 says:

"To them belong the patriarchs, and from their race, according to the flesh, is the Christ who is God over all, blessed forever. Amen."

The word "god" in Hebrew used to have two different meanings: The first is the singular "God." The other is the generic "god" (or oftentimes "gods").

In the Hebrew language, the nobles, princes, judges and civil magistrates were sometimes called "gods" ("elohim").

Jesus was also a "god" because was given all the authority to rule over his people and to instruct them in accordance to the Scripture. Jesus as "God" in Romans 9:5 was used in a generic sense of the word (meaning a "judge"), not the one and only singular "God." It doesn't say "Jesus is God," but rather, it says that he was "God over all." And in that same verse, it mentions the patriarchs (those who ruled over others), and so that is another reason why the word "God" in reference to Jesus was meant to signify the authority that he was given over all the people - in other words, he was a judge over all people - as mentioned elsewhere in the Bible:

"Then Jesus came to them and said 'All authority hath been given unto me in heaven and on earth.'" (Matthew 28:18)

"For the Father judges no one, but has entrusted all judgment to the Son." (John 5:22).

This use of the word “gods” to refer to humans is rare, but it is found elsewhere in the Old Testament. For example, when God sent Moses to Pharaoh, He said, “See, I have made you like God to Pharaoh” (Exodus 7:1). This simply means that Moses, as the messenger of God, was speaking God’s words and would therefore be God’s representative to the king. The Hebrew word Elohim is translated “judges” in Exodus 21:6 and 22:8, 9, and 28.

http://www.gotquestions.org/you-are-gods.html

The word [theos, 'god' or 'God'] is used of Divinely appointed judges in Israel, as representing God in His authority, John 10:34.

- W. E. Vine, An Expository Dictionary of New Testament Words, p. 491

Jesus was referred to as a Son of God and he was also a "god" (or a "judge") per Psalm 82:6 because he, as a Son of God, had all the authority to instruct his people in order to carry out the commandments of God that were revealed to him.

"I said, Ye are gods, and all of you sons of the Most High. Nevertheless ye shall die like men, And fall like one of the princes." (Psalm 82:6-7).

This is explained below:

The reason why judges are called ‘gods’ in Ps. 82 is that they have the office of administering God’s judgment as ‘sons of the Most High’. In context of the Ps. the men in question have failed to do this…. On the other hand, Jesus fulfilled the role of a true judge as a ‘god’ and ‘son of the Most High’.

- The New International Dictionary of New Testament Theology, 1986. Vol. 3, p. 187

"Gods" used as "judges" can also be found in Exodus 12:12 and Psalm 82:1:
http://bible.cc/exodus/12-12.htm
http://bible.cc/psalms/82-1.htm


Kousbroek, this whole post addresses your comment as well.