Do you think "necrophilia" can be considered a legit sexual orientation?

[Something completely different]

So in other words, you're saying homosexuality has no beneficial reproductive properties and that the "gay gene" that supposedly causes homosexuality increases the chances of passing genes on to a potential human who in effect will make numerous futile attempts to pass that gene on by the act of attempted copulation with a member of the same sex? Obviously that logic has a major flaw, don't you think?

I see that it is useless debating anything with you because you seem to eigther be to dumb to understan, or you are deliberatly refusing to understand the concept I presented.

So I will simply post a video in which the concept is presented and explained in a way that even the simplest halfwits will understand it.

http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=YuK9pxjBwX8