(September 18, 2013 at 3:14 pm)Drich Wrote: Keep reading sport:
The N. T. says that he reigned (Matthew 2:22), and in Josephus in Josephus (Ant., XVII, viii, 2, ix, 2) he is called king.
Oh, thanks for reminding me, sweety (I can condescend too). When Joseph returned from exile in Egypt after Herod the king died, that's when he decided not to go to his home town in Bethlehem because his son reigned there (one can do that without being a king).
That, of course, was the Matthew version which had Jesus born in Joseph's HOUSE in Bethlehem, he fled to Egypt and resettled into Nazareth.
Here are the relevant passages:
The Gospel of Matthew Wrote:2:1 Now when Jesus was born in Bethlehem of Judaea in the days of Herod the king, behold, there came wise men from the east to Jerusalem,
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2:11 And when they were come into the house, they saw the young child with Mary his mother, and fell down, and worshipped him: and when they had opened their treasures, they presented unto him gifts; gold, and frankincense and myrrh.
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2:14 When he arose, he took the young child and his mother by night, and departed into Egypt:
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2:19-20 But when Herod was dead, behold, an angel of the Lord appeareth in a dream to Joseph in Egypt, Saying, Arise, and take the young child and his mother, and go into the land of Israel: for they are dead which sought the young child's life.
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2:22 But when he heard that Archelaus did reign in Judaea in the room of his father Herod, he was afraid to go thither: notwithstanding, being warned of God in a dream, he turned aside into the parts of Galilee:
So we've established that the Gospels refer to Herod the Great as "king" and Archelaus by his name.
In Luke's version, where Joseph's home town was Nazareth and Mary would give birth in Bethlehem in a manger, Mary conceived during...
Quote:Luke 1:5 There was in the days of Herod, the king of Judaea,
But hey, maybe Luke's style differed enough from Matthew's that he would refer to Archelaus as "Herod, the king of Judea". So I looked up the footnotes of my Oxford Annotated Bible and it doesn't indicated any controversy about the matter, that the passage refers to King Herod the Great and the time-frame would be 4 BCE or before. Can you cite the passage where Josephus refers to Archelaus as "Herod, King of Judea" or any scholarly opinion that Luke was referring to Archelaus?
Atheist Forums Hall of Shame:
"The trinity can be equated to having your cake and eating it too."
... -Lucent, trying to defend the Trinity concept
"(Yahweh's) actions are good because (Yahweh) is the ultimate standard of goodness. That’s not begging the question"
... -Statler Waldorf, Christian apologist
"The trinity can be equated to having your cake and eating it too."
... -Lucent, trying to defend the Trinity concept
"(Yahweh's) actions are good because (Yahweh) is the ultimate standard of goodness. That’s not begging the question"
... -Statler Waldorf, Christian apologist