RE: Why Does Atheism Have to be False?
June 21, 2015 at 4:20 am
(This post was last modified: June 21, 2015 at 4:22 am by robvalue.)
I covered this recently in another thread so I will quote myself. This kind of argument contains many logical fallacies, and if you are interested, I can help you see why. It is based off the argument from incredulity, "I can't imagine how else all this could have happened."
If anything is unclear, please ask. I have links in the post to my website explaining what the fallacies mean.
If anything is unclear, please ask. I have links in the post to my website explaining what the fallacies mean.
(June 20, 2015 at 5:13 am)robvalue Wrote: All of science has never so far indicated there ever was "nothing". So to be blunt, to state there once was "nothing" is to make a completely unfounded assumption that goes beyond all scientific knowledge. We simply don't know what happened before a certain point.
But even if there was a "cause" then
cause =/= sentient being =/= god =/= any particular god
[ =/= means is not equivalent to ]
That's 3 non sequiturs in a row following an argument from ignorance/incredulity from an unsupported assertion.
Logic is my only friend.
I agree that there isn't 100% scientific proof for god. I would go further, and say that there is 0%. There isn't even a coherent definition that could be tested for.
Feel free to send me a private message.
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Please visit my website here! It's got lots of information about atheism/theism and support for new atheists.
Index of useful threads and discussions
Index of my best videos
Quickstart guide to the forum