pop morality

[Drich]

You keep saying "their" instead of "there"... kinda getting annoying.

You like me will get use to it.

Anyways, you say that Deuteronomy 22:28-29 says the rapist becomes the family's slave.  OK... where in the hell are you getting that?

In the fact that the bible says the family of the rape victim is to be paid 50 Shekels of silver. As I pointed out, this is about a years worth of work. Now pointing back to Hebrew law if you have a debt that can not be paid, then the who owes the debt is sold into slavery/the one owed The can take the slave (or if he is too poor to meet the care requirements) can sell him to someone who can.

 And you say I should ask how much a shekel is... LOL... I don't care how much it is because IT'S NOT GOING TO THE VICTIM.

Hey stupid, (I say that because you are PROUD of you ignorance and are literally flaunting how dumb you are right now)
The Money, its going to the closest blood relative that is charged with her care. Why? (I know you don't like to ask why, you'd rather make some self righteous reason up just so you can live in bigoted hate.) But the answer here speaks to what the girls age most likely would be. Now I will leave it to you to ask or look that fact up.
Or bottom line simply understand she would have been too you to be charged with responsibly dealing with that money.

Not to mention this was an impossible amount of money for anyone to have to begin with. which almost certainly meant slavery.

Now I know you want to remain as dumb as possible so you can blindly hold on to your fool's argument, but I will ask you to stretch your little mind just a little more, by asking you to put all of these penalties in series and place them in that time in that community... Now given all of the work/beating/cost not to mention the 'label' you'd be stuck with in the community, along with a wife who will never let hear the end of it... I ask you to consider that For most men this 'price' is far too high to pay for any perceived 'reward.' therefore the law acts as a deterrent.

 Well... in their view it was going to the victim, because the victim was considered to be the father.

Why?
Because he was completely responsible for his daughters till they all got married off.
So the Father would be looking at the long game/invest so she could be taken care of. This is what father's did for all of their daughters, they made sure they their was something/one there to fill that role in that society.

The woman being raped was not considered a victim.

Book Chapter and verse please. Or more than likely please take the time to explain your bigoted self righteous hate so I can take it apart and make you look like some emotion lead primate who is trying to make sense of his 'feelings' against a law he does not want to understand.

 Also you completely fail to address the fact that the rapist will continue to rape his bride.  COMPLETE SILENCE on your end.  I wonder why...?

Because anyone who has ever been married and knows their is no possibility for divorce knows the answer here. (even if you did ask the question which you did not.)
Happy wife, Happy life.. There are many proverbs and OT examples of how miserable life was for men who did not have happy wives in that culture. Why? Because women controlled the house hold, they had final say on how the home worked.


What are you talking about? their is only one pretext in which sex is permitted.

That's in a sanctified marriage. "That there shall be no harlot (in Israel); that is, that there shall be no intercourse with a woman, without previous marriage with a deed of marriage and formal declaration of marriage (Deut. 23:18) "

You completely reworded Deuteronomy 23:18.  You're now a CONFIRMED LIAR.

Actually sport I cut and pasted the law from: http://www.jewfaq.org/613.htm
Straight from the horses mouth...

Again "thou shall not rape" is not needed when "thou shal not have sex unless your married has been established."

Again... where does it say you may not rape your wife?  And why wouldn't a man rape his wife if he raped her before they were married and then he was forced to marry her because of it?  Insert Jackie Chan frustrated meme here.

Because under the marriage covenant sexual relations was the right of the woman and not the man.. Again ask a question get an answer. Make a dumb ass assumption from bigotted ignorance, get called and proved stupid.
http://www.jewfaq.org/marriage.htm#Relationship
http://www.jewfaq.org/613.htm
(#73)

One could not marry a child. She could be betrothed but not married, and again one could not have sex unless they were married deu 23:18

This says nothing about pedophilia or marrying a child.  Get the verse that says you can't have sex with minors.

Hey, stupid. The verse says No one is to Have sex unless one is married. So this means one can not have sex with a child because they are not permitted to be married/have sex till they reach a certain age.

Now are you asking for the verse that says children can not be married/have sex??

This is how the Jewish culture and law worked.. It is different from your own. Only a complete moron would assume that because you don't currently see or understand how this culture worked, doesn't mean you are in a place to rightfully judge it. This is the American attitude that the rest of the world hates. You assume that you and the way you do things is the only right way. Look at how you expect Law to be read, and wrongfully assume, rather than looking at the culture. you need a 'thou shalt not' otherwise it is permissible.

The Jews/God pulled the problem out by the root. The law may include specific instances but if the Law reads Sex is only permitted in a sanctified marriage then all other forms of sex are forbidden. This means that sex can only happen between what the bible defines as a Married Man and woman. Now granted for the Jews a 'Bar/Bot mitzvah' the introduction into adulthood. which is alot younger than what this society identifies as an adult.

again, Silence is not permission. 
Yes it is... LOL.  No law on the American books about adultery.  You know why?  BECAUSE IT IS LEGAL.

Beside I'm sure far more raped women in OT times got a far stronger sense of justice than some sterile prison sentence.

PERFECT EXAMPLE Of the Ugly American syndrome!!! You don't even know what you are doing is WRONG! You judge everything and everyone by your broken standard! That is the reason for this very thread... To point out that IF your 'American Standard is broken, you would have no way of knowing. The only thing you could do is point to how other cultures are different and ASSume they were in the wrong.

The Law Reads:
That there shall be no harlot (in Israel); that is, that there shall be no intercourse with a woman, without previous marriage with a deed of marriage and formal declaration of marriage (Deut. 23:18)
Again: rule 69
http://www.jewfaq.org/613.htm

So No SEX with out a formal marriage= No sex outside of marriage period. Now if you weren't stupid and sought to remain in ignorance so you could keep your broken arguement, you'd ask so what constitutes a marriage? Who could and could not get married what are the ages...

If you were so inclined, I could point you to the part of the law that applies. Or you can make another assumption from ignorance and I can tear that apart as well.

Again this is how this system for these people worked. You did not have pin point laws for everything because stuff like this was not a problem. you had to some times break a situation down to it's parts and see what laws applied.

Yes... if by justice you mean being raped every day for the rest of their lives.

(Captian Picard Face Palm Meme Caption "Idiot...")
Who decides when sex is to happen in a sanctified marriage? Just because the Hebrews were labeled misogynist, does it mean they had to follow your sterotype? Would not an honest person look at what they actually did or did not do and make a judgement off of that? or is your self righteousness so corrupted you that histroy and truth does not matter when dealing with God, and it is ok to just make crap up out of the blue?