pop morality

[Drich]

If slavery is morally necessary, why did Yahweh free all the Egyptian slaves?  

Good question!
but first I would like to point out that it was God to lead them into Egypt so that infact that they would become slaves to begin with, so that Egypt could protect, feed and cause the 12 tribe family grow into a whole nation.

Would that act not be immoral?  

So then to answer this question we first must know Why God let them go. we are told that in those last days of Egyptian slavery that Egypt had forgotten the pledge previous pharaohs swore to Joseph, and they became hard and began to mistreat the Jews. The final straw for God was when the Pharaoh of the exodus saw that the number of Jews out numbered the egyptians and the pharaoh had all of the boys murdered to the age of 10 I believe.

In this example we see slavery not being the immorality as God Himself lead the Sons of Israel into it, but it was the mistreatment of the slaves that triggered the exodus.

You're crippling an entire economy.  That's not to mention all the havoc the plagues would have wrecked on Egypt.

Indeed. Which I would call a judgement of God on those people.

 That Egypt is standing today, if the Exodus Myth were true, would be a testament to the power of Ra and the other Egyptian Gods.  The plagues would have wiped out Egypt, and most of their army.  And there were neighbors not too far who would gladly have conquered Egypt in their weakened state.   And that's just the plagues.  Not to mention the loss of their slave labor in their entirety.

It's funny you mention all of this because in my last thread "proof of the exodus for those who want it" we discuss a "book" written from an 'egyptian sage' that is in a museum and has been authenticated as being from the period in which some scholars believe the exodus took place, and everything you described here was recorded in that book.

That the Egypt of the exodus stood in ruin and was indeed captured by it's enemies thus ending the "middle Kingdom." Starting a 100 year "dark period" where little to absolutely nothing was know about Egypt because nothing survived. Then after this dark period it was rebuilt into the "new Kingdom." This was not the first time it happened either. their was the "old Kingdom" then a 200 or 300 year dark period then the middle kingdom.

If you are intrested i mention a documentary on net flix that outlines all of this in Great detail!

Oh and of course they had enough manpower left to wipe out all evidence of the Hebrews ever being slaves, or any of the plagues actually happening.

Actually as the documentary explains they didn't wipe anything out. It is all there and always has been. The objection you have is based on the idea that the jewish verbal tradition of the exodus happened under pharaoh Ramses the great in the new Kingdom... The objection you have is 100% correct. their were no Jews in the New Kingdom.. they had been gone from egypt between 3 and 4 hundred years at that point. However if you look back to the middle kingdom you see not jews, because the Jews were not known as jews till after they took the holy land (40 years after the exodus) they were known as the semites of the goshen region. They were for all intense and purposes, Egyptians who came from the 'north'. Again, the documentary actually takes you to the city that is being excavated by a German archaeologist (the absolute top of his field) who himself identifies these people as being semetic.

http://atheistforums.org/thread-40138.html