(March 24, 2013 at 12:06 am)jstrodel Wrote: How is deceiving people a victimless crime?
It is only deceit if one knows that one's statements are false. That is not the scenario that you proposed. You proposed that it would be the greatest crime to deny that objective morality did not exist when in fact it did. You said nothing about whether that fact was demonstrable. In the absence of said demonstration of fact, it is one's opinion, which is hardly a crime. Oh, and when last I checked, lying was not a crime, much less the greatest crime.
In addition the point that I was making, is that if objective morality exists, it exists independent of any entity's opinion of it, including god's, and that said god cannot be harmed by it's denial. No harm, no crime.
By the way, your proposition can be turned around to to damn you equally - what if there isn't such a thing as objective morality? By your own standard, would it not then be just as much of a crime to opine that there was? This is of course, purely a though experiment, because I personally do not think it would be, but if you are applying your own screwy logic, you should - and since you cannot demonstrate that you don't know... I'll leave the rest to your imagination.
