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Current time: November 2, 2026, 3:49 am
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Why does the Bible say there are different races of people...
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You do realise that the KJV is over 80% word-for-word identical to the Geneva Bible, right?
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It doesn't matter what it was translated from.... it was primitive shit to begin with and no amount of tinkering was going to make it better.
(March 4, 2015 at 12:29 pm)Minimalist Wrote: It doesn't matter what it was translated from.... it was primitive shit to begin with and no amount of tinkering was going to make it better. One would think those primitive religions would have died off.
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And they did....except the one that the proto-orthodox xtians decided to attach to their bullshit story to give it some appearance of gravitas.
(March 3, 2015 at 6:40 am)Aractus Wrote: When actually there are not? Maybe you should write merrium webster and tell them, because they seem to think differently. 3race Tweet nounDefinition of RACE 1: a breeding stock of animals 2a : a family, tribe, people, or nation belonging to the same stock b : a class or kind of people unified by shared interests, habits, or characteristics 3a : an actually or potentially interbreeding group within a species; also : a taxonomic category (as a subspecies) representing such a group b : breed c : a category of humankind that shares certain distinctive physical traits (March 4, 2015 at 12:10 pm)dyresand Wrote: The reason behind this is because if you read up on why and how the KJV was translated into English there was a good enough reason for it not to be translated. Because there is notable mistranslations in the KJV.That's not entirely true, it did represent a significant improvement over the Geneva Bible. But it was still based off it. They still used the Vulgate. The OT was heavily influenced by both the Vulgate and the LXX. They also used Novum Instrumentum omne (3rd edition)/"Textus Receptus" which represents the incorrect text of the NT as the primary textual basis of the NT and the Complutensian Polyglot Bible as the tertiary source. So they made a number of errors in their assumptions of the importance and validity of certain textual sources that they used. (March 5, 2015 at 12:52 am)Aractus Wrote:(March 4, 2015 at 12:10 pm)dyresand Wrote: The reason behind this is because if you read up on why and how the KJV was translated into English there was a good enough reason for it not to be translated. Because there is notable mistranslations in the KJV.That's not entirely true, it did represent a significant improvement over the Geneva Bible. But it was still based off it. They still used the Vulgate. The OT was heavily influenced by both the Vulgate and the LXX. They also used Novum Instrumentum omne (3rd edition)/"Textus Receptus" which represents the incorrect text of the NT as the primary textual basis of the NT and the Complutensian Polyglot Bible as the tertiary source. So they made a number of errors in their assumptions of the importance and validity of certain textual sources that they used. Oh okay thanks i didn't know that And now i know and knowing is half.....ill stop right there.
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Yeah, you wouldn't want to get the wrong version of the infallible word of god, now would you?
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