The Genesis Fraud

[michaelsherlock]

"Not doctrinal"..lol, complete bullshit Drich. Which god was christ again? What is christ coming to save us from again? When did that happen again? Are you going to start blathering on about "not doctrinal" but "true enough"? Give me a fucking break. You shouldn't be so willing to come off like a snake in service of christ, if you want to spread that message. That's just my opinion.

But hell, let's run with it. God did not create us (or anything else in this world), there was no garden, no original sin, no sin at all, no fall of man, and death isn't some sort of curse placed upon us. I love your doctrine Drich.

I understand your frustration. I have been on many apologetic forums and debated with some of America's "Top" apologists, and at times I think I might have lost fewer braincells by repeatedly smashing my head against an iron wall. Belief is a fickle mistress!

Your words remind me of the early Church father, Origen, who said:

"Could any man of sound judgment suppose that the first, second and third days (of creation) had an evening and a morning, when there were as yet no sun or moon or stars? Could anyone be so unintelligent as to think that God made a paradise somewhere in the east and planted it with trees, like a farmer, or that in that paradise he put a tree of life, a tree you could see and know with your senses, a tree you could derive life from by eating its fruit with the teeth in your head? When the Bible says that God used to walk in paradise in the evening or that Adam hid behind a tree, no one, I think, will question that these are only fictions, stories of things that never actually happened, and that figuratively they refer to certain mysteries."

Phillip Schaff. Ante-Nicene Fathers of the Third Century: Tertullian Part Fourth; Minucius Felix; Commodian; Origen Parts First and Second. Grand Rapids. Christian: Origen. De Principiis. Pg. 616

And with regards to the NT, said:

"The same style of Scriptural narrative occurs abundantly in the Gospels, as when the devil is said to have placed Jesus on a lofty mountain, that he might show Him from thence all the kingdoms of the world, and the glory of them. How could it literally come to pass, either that Jesus should be led up by the devil into a high mountain, or that the latter should show him all the kingdoms of the world (as if they were lying beneath his bodily eyes, and adjacent to one mountain), i.e., the kingdoms of the Persians, and Scythians, and Indians? Or how could he show in what manner the kings of these kingdoms are glorified by men? And many other instances similar to this will be found in the Gospels by anyone who will read them with attention, and will observe that in those narratives which appear to be literally recorded, there are inserted and interwoven things which cannot be admitted historically…"

Ibid.

In the end, we eat, drink, sleep, shit, wake up (not necessarily in that order) we occupy the same physical plain with those who dream of other plains and it is natural that these sleepwalkers occaisionally step on our toes.