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God's love is "insert obscure and likely made up definition here." So, I'm right and you're all wrong. I hate gays and twist the words in the Bible to suit my hatred of gays. So, yay, me. Blah, blah, fucking blah.
What is it that Min always says about god hating all the same people you do? Whatever it is, Drich has just proved him absolutely right or he's really just trolling the joint.
(May 9, 2012 at 3:02 pm)gringoperry Wrote: Let me just end this all right here and now.
with a series of questions???
Quote: How come all these interpretations and explanations are always counter arguments to the fallacies found in the bible?
I'm not sure what you mean by fallacies found in the bible. But, if your asking why is the bible used to answer biblically based questions, I should hope the answer is obvious.
Quote: So, all those true Christians who preached a completely different angle were wrong, right?
We are all wrong to a degree so yes.
Quote: Which would mean that any of those Christians who have passed away are now in hell, right?
No not necessarily, because being 100% "right" is not a prerequisite of salvation unless you hold others to that standard yourself.
Quote:Providing answers after the contradiction is sound reasoning, right?
Begs the question.
Quote:Incidentally, there are Christian apologists who claim that the words in the bible, which refer to homosexual sex, are actually misinterpretations of the word rape.
does not matter because Homosexuality is described in several different way, all of which are still defined as being a sin.
Quote: So, gay marriage is all good, right? Right,.
Again no because even if you remove or choose to ignore all the instances that directly describe Homosexuality as being a sin you still do not have a command or precedent allowing for same sex marriage. Now because all sex outside the covenant of marriage (even the thought of it) is a sin. Homosexuality is still considered a sin.
Quote: I get it now
Glad to be of service.
And your modern, updated version of these translations is right, why? You miserably failed to address any of my points. Which, may I add, were all blatantly clear to anyone who can question the validity of a previous assertion, and then, compare it to a new assertion. So, let's start again. You show me yours (Translations which support your argument) and I'll show you mine (Translations which support my argument).
(May 9, 2012 at 4:49 pm)gringoperry Wrote: and your modern, updated version of these translations is right, why?
Why do you believe my bible to be "modern and updated?"
Quote:You miserably failed to address any of my points.
Then perhaps you can go line by line and explain how the explainations provided, failed.
Quote: Which, may I add, were all blatantly clear to anyone who can question the validity of a previous assertion, and then, compare it to a new assertion. So, let's start again. You show me yours (Translations which support your argument) and I'll show you mine (Translations which support my argument).
How about I don't quote anything and shift the burden of proof to you? Is that any clearer for you? There is only one argument I need to dissect in this whole thread and it is the assumption that God exists. To counter that argument all I have to say is prove it. So go ahead, prove it.
(May 9, 2012 at 10:39 pm)gringoperry Wrote: How about I don't quote anything and shift the burden of proof to you? Is that any clearer for you?
No because we have covered a myriad of topics all relating to the nature of God's love..
Quote:There is only one argument I need to dissect in this whole thread and it is the assumption that God exists.
If you do not believe God exists then why enter a discussion about the nature of His love? That fact that you are willing to discuss the nature of God's love places you in a position where you have to acknoweledge He exists.
Quote:To counter that argument all I have to say is prove it.
So go ahead, prove it.
Prove what? The definition of Agape? Prove that God offers Agape? That Agape is not the unconditional love we think it to be?
Or are you simply trolling for an off topic argument?
I'm not sure what you mean by fallacies found in the bible. But, if your asking why is the bible used to answer biblically based questions, I should hope the answer is obvious.
We are all wrong to a degree so yes.
No not necessarily, because being 100% "right" is not a prerequisite of salvation unless you hold others to that standard yourself.
Begs the question.
does not matter because Homosexuality is described in several different way, all of which are still defined as being a sin.
Again no because even if you remove or choose to ignore all the instances that directly describe Homosexuality as being a sin you still do not have a command or precedent allowing for same sex marriage. Now because all sex outside the covenant of marriage (even the thought of it) is a sin. Homosexuality is still considered a sin.
Glad to be of service.
And your modern, updated version of these translations is right, why? You miserably failed to address any of my points. Which, may I add, were all blatantly clear to anyone who can question the validity of a previous assertion, and then, compare it to a new assertion. So, let's start again. You show me yours (Translations which support your argument) and I'll show you mine (Translations which support my argument).
So juvenile, show me your's and I'll show you mine, grow up.
God loves those who believe and those who do not and the same goes for me, you have no choice in this matter. That puts the matter of total free will to rest.
May 10, 2012 at 12:37 am (This post was last modified: May 10, 2012 at 12:38 am by Epimethean.)
And ten pages in, there is no compelling argument that agape is different from philia. Chances are greater that the words show in the text of the bible in the mixed way in which they do due to syncretism and demoticization than that there is a secret "love" code embedded in the text that only the initiated can understand with their deus-ex-Ovaltine rings.